Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 02:43
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How did you respond to, "Why do you love me"?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What are "the new net zero jobs of tomorrow" that SNP's Stephen Flynn says his party would create?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?